If Christ died for all the sins of all men, but all of these men are not eternally saved and going to heaven, then that necessarily means that His death for sins was not effectual (it didn’t actually put away the sins He died for).

Was Christ’s death effectual in putting away the sins for which He died?  (Did He make full payment for the sins for which He died and cancel them, or did He just make it possible for the sins to be put away?)